Re: Evaluation question
Posted by Roger Hunter on March 13, 2002 at 04:40:58:

Lowell;

Yes.

I define the "value" of a hit as the inverse of its' probability.

I'm wondering if averaging such values is mathematically sound?

Roger


Follow Ups:
     ● Re: Evaluation question - Lowell  07:07:36 - 3/13/2002  (13651)  (1)
        ● Re: Evaluation question - Roger Hunter  07:54:25 - 3/13/2002  (13654)  (0)