Question for the board
Posted by Roger Hunter on August 22, 2007 at 12:05:46:

OK, let's try this again.

If I count up all the mag 6+ quakes in the Pacific area between 1973 and 2006 I find there are 3153 of them. There are 12418.5 days in 34 years and 12418.5/3153 gives 3.9 days between quakes if we assume a uniform distribution. This is what I meant by "average", that you might expect to see more quakes in the 4 to 5 day columns than in the lower or higher values.

Now the actual count of days between quakes has 0 as the highest, dropping rapidly with the largest interval at 46 days, producing the reverse-J curve I was incorrectly calling exponential. It's actually a poisson curve with average near zero.

The question is "WHY"? Why are there more quakes on the same day, even when they are 1000 or more kilometers apart.

Roger


Follow Ups:
     ● not quite - John Vidale  12:19:52 - 8/22/2007  (72500)  (1)
        ● Re: not quite - Roger Hunter  12:37:21 - 8/22/2007  (72501)  (3)
           ● peak should always be at zero - John Vidale  14:31:06 - 8/22/2007  (72504)  (0)
           ● peak should always be at zero - John Vidale  14:31:02 - 8/22/2007  (72503)  (1)
              ● Re: peak should always be at zero - Roger Hunter  16:32:41 - 8/22/2007  (72507)  (0)
           ● Re: not quite; also - Roger Hunter  13:37:53 - 8/22/2007  (72502)  (1)
              ● Re: not quite; also - heartland chris  15:26:21 - 8/22/2007  (72506)  (0)