Chris or John Question
Posted by Petra on May 10, 2004 at 18:30:26:

Hi Gents,

If a moderate or large earthquake has no aftershocks does it have any more meaning than one's that do? Though the Santa Barbara Channel quake had a foreshock, then a main shock, but no aftershocks could the mainshock possibly be a foreshock to a larger quake?

Do you think it is interesting that we had the SBC quake followed by the Point Lopez quake?

I hope it means something and that by the time I arrive in either Paso Robles or Parkfield the Earth is gonna give up something memorable while I'm there. I'm darn tired of that quakeless feeling.

Petra


Follow Ups:
     ● Re: Chris or John Question - Todd  13:32:09 - 5/11/2004  (21703)  (1)
        ● Re: Chris or John Question - Don in Hollister  14:05:36 - 5/11/2004  (21704)  (0)
     ● Re: Chris or John Question - chris in suburbia  04:26:01 - 5/11/2004  (21701)  (1)
        ● Re: Chris or John Question - Don in Hollister  05:05:39 - 5/11/2004  (21702)  (0)
     ● meaning of aftershocks - John Vidale  21:06:22 - 5/10/2004  (21698)  (1)
        ● Re: Clear As Mud - Petra  21:53:35 - 5/10/2004  (21699)  (1)
           ● yes, clear as mud - John Vidale  03:23:12 - 5/11/2004  (21700)  (0)