A thought occurs to me, if the z-binomial works for cases where all the probabilities are the same, what if you ran the Jones on such a data set anyway?

I would expect the two methods should have the same result in such a case.

Such a comparison would serve to confirm the validity of the Jones method at least in that special case.

I need to do more tidying up of my code, and to read up on the z-binomial method (again).

Brian